Diagnostic Imaging I Palmer Practice Test

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• Which radiographic finding is commonly associated with Cushing's disease?
• Complex regional pain syndrome is also known as which of the following?
• What is the initial pathologic process in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Marginal syndesmophyte formation in AS may be accompanied by calcification of which structure?
• Radiographic features of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease include which of the following?
• Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
• What is a radiographic feature of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Which laboratory test is commonly used for screening in SLE?
• Which combination represents the classic triad of reactive arthritis?
• What age range is commonly affected by psoriatic arthritis?
• What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) best described as?
• Osteomalacia is described as
• Which of the following is not listed as a type of osseous demineralization?
• Fractures due to post-menopausal osteoporosis can be found where?
• Which statement about psoriatic arthritis is NOT true?
• Which sites are considered peripheral for a DEXA scan?
• Cushing's disease is best defined as
• Pelkin spurs are metaphyseal spurs that result in what appearance?
• Psoriatic arthritis is described as which of the following?
• In SLE, gastrointestinal involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Which of the following is a characteristic facial feature of Cushing's disease?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is also known as what?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with osteitis pubis?
• Which is an etiology of osteomalacia?
• Longus colli deposition disease occurs at which site?
• Which finding is a general radiographic feature in the appendicular skeleton for reactive arthritis?
• In early spinal involvement of ankylosing spondylitis, which lesion is typically seen along the anterior corners of the vertebral bodies, often leading to squared vertebrae?
• What imaging modality is preferred for detecting density changes in post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What is an example of regional osseous demineralization?
• Which lab finding is typical of reactive arthritis?
• CPPD crystal deposition is seen in which tissues?
• In acromegaly, degenerative joint disease tends to develop when?
• Which statement best describes the typical joint involvement in SLE?
• Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are defined as what characteristics?
• Which statement about radiographic features in chronic gout is true?
• Is ankylosing spondylitis more common in males or females?
• Enteropathic arthritis is best described as which of the following?
• A T-score of -2 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Radiographic features become evident after immobilization in how many days?
• What are the causes of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which statement best describes how a DEXA scan quantifies bone mass?
• Which pattern of joint involvement is most characteristic of psoriatic arthritis?
• What is the most common site of involvement for gout?
• Which of the following is a metabolic/endocrine disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• What labs are typically used to evaluate scleroderma?
• Which connective tissue disorder is associated with scleroderma?
• Which imaging feature differentiates disuse osteoporosis from early CRPS?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with osteitis pubis?
• In whom is scurvy commonly seen?
• Pubic symphyseal enthesitis/erosions is a radiographic feature of AS in which region?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• Common fracture sites associated with osteoporosis include which of the following?
• SLAC wrist is associated with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and involves which change?
• Which radiographic finding may be an early sign of acromegaly?
• Which soft tissue change is associated with scleroderma?
• Which imaging view best demonstrates calcifications in the supraspinatus tendon?
• In psoriatic arthritis, the spine can be involved, including which region?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• Which region is typically affected second in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Regional osseous demineralization is best described as involvement of
• Which site is NOT considered peripheral for DEXA scanning?
• Reactive arthritis is believed to be what?
• Which radiographic finding is represented by a dense zone of provisional calcification around the metaphysis and is known as the white line of Frankel?
• Gout is also known as which term?
• Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for scurvy?
• Which radiographic jaw change is associated with acromegaly?
• What is the radiographic feature of osteitis condensans ilii?
• -2.0 T-score corresponds to which category?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, is it more common in males or females?
• Pseudoarthrosis at the site of a pathologic fracture (carrot-stick) in ankylosing spondylitis is known as?
• In the altered trabecular pattern of post-menopausal osteoporosis, which statement is true?
• What is the most common type of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which statement best describes generalized osteoporosis in the context of systemic bone health?
• What percentage of patients with ulcerative colitis present with enteropathic arthritis?
• Enthesitis in ankylosing spondylitis leads to which sequence of changes?
• Which statement describes radiographs in detecting density changes in osteoporosis?
• Ochronosis is characterized by deficiency of which enzyme?
• Which anticonvulsant is listed as a risk factor for rickets?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which condition is a metabolic arthritic disorder?
• Which stage is associated with chronic tophaceous gout?
• Ochronosis inheritance pattern?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease in the shoulder most commonly involves which tendon?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, back stiffness can progress to complete loss of range of motion due to fusion of the spine, a condition called what?
• Which congenital disorder is listed as a cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic change is seen in osteitis pubis aside from subchondral sclerosis?
• Shiny corner sign refers to which radiographic finding?
• Which imaging modalities are typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Which imaging modality is NOT typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• In hydroxyapatite deposition disease of the shoulder, calcifications are best seen in which rotator cuff tendon on an external rotation view?
• What is scurvy commonly known as?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is more common in which group?
• Osteomalacia is clinically asymptomatic unless?
• What does the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) represent?
• Which age range is commonly affected by SLE?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in SLE?
• Which region is typically affected first in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease is also known as?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature of disuse osteoporosis?
• Which of the following are listed as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• Reactive arthritis is more common in which gender?
• What is acromegaly?
• What is the most common location of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Scleroderma is more common in which sex?
• Which pelvis finding is AS due to ossification of ligamentous insertional sites, presenting as whiskering of the ischial tuberosities?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which joints are primarily involved in fusion as the disease progresses?
• What are the key areas of involvement for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• What imaging view is recommended to assess cervical involvement in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is more common in which sex?
• What is scleroderma?
• Which laboratory finding is most commonly associated with gout?
• Salt and pepper skull is typically seen in which condition?
• What is a key joint feature in SLE?
• In ochronosis, which pattern describes joint involvement in non-axial joints?
• Which of the following is a vascular disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is NOT a radiographic feature of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Subperiosteal hemorrhage and hemarthrosis are radiographic features of which disease?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in chronic gout?
• Patients with what condition commonly have secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• Ward's triangle in osteoporosis is described as:
• Which radiographic feature is described as 'mouse ear' appearance at the interphalangeal joints?
• What is the most important area affected in ankylosing spondylitis?
• What is generalized osseous demineralization?
• What might secondary hyperparathyroidism result in?
• What type of arthropathy is SLE associated with?
• Reactive arthritis is also known as?
• Rickets is distinguished from osteomalacia primarily by involvement of which anatomical structures?
• What age range is commonly affected by reactive arthritis?
• What age range is commonly affected by transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• A T-score of -2.6 is classified as which condition?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in both rickets and scurvy?
• Which joint shows severe changes with radial subluxation in scleroderma?
• Which of the following joints is commonly involved in reactive arthritis?
• How does marginal syndesmophyte formation present radiographically?
• What is primary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is the clinical presentation of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Which joints are commonly affected by SLE?
• Which of the following is a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Brown tumors are associated with which condition?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• Which radiographic deformity is associated with scleroderma?
• Which metabolite accumulates in ochronosis due to enzyme deficiency?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic of sacroiliac joints in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is best described as?
• Generalized osseous demineralization involves
• Which of the following is an iatrogenic cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Peak radiographic changes occur at what time after immobilization?
• Which phenomenon commonly accompanies scleroderma affecting peripheral circulation?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typically seen in osteomalacia?
• A DEXA report shows which scores?
• The most common etiology of regional osteoporosis is?
• Which joint is commonly involved in ochronosis with chondrocalcinosis?
• Which of the following is a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the appendicular skeleton?
• Disuse osteoporosis is defined as bone loss due to immobilization from which conditions?
• Which osseous change is characteristic of scleroderma?
• Which statement describes the Z-score reference for bone density?
• Although transient osteoporosis of the hip classically is more common in males, it also affects who commonly?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• What is the recommended management action for ankylosing spondylitis?
• In CRPS radiographs, which feature is typical?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is usually symptomatic only if?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with dactylitis (sausage digits) in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which statement about lab diagnostics in post-menopausal osteoporosis is true?
• Which of the following is NOT a key involvement area for reactive arthritis?
• Growth hormone (GH) is produced by which part of the pituitary gland?
• Ochronosis is also known as which condition?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic at sites of enthesis in psoriatic arthritis?
• What is osteitis pubis?
• What is ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland?
• In ochronosis, which spinal change may be seen?
• Which condition describes deposits of urate crystals in soft tissues forming nodules?
• Which statement best describes the imaging relationship between disuse osteoporosis and CRPS?
• What are the different types of osseous demineralization?
• A T-score of -4 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• What is the etiology for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• What imaging modality provides a definitive diagnosis for CRPS?
• What is a scorbutic zone?
• What age is commonly affected by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an association of ankylosing spondylitis?
• In ankylosing spondylitis affecting the hips, which progression may occur?
• Radiographic features of rickets are most prevalent at which site?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature associated with acromegaly?
• What is gout?
• What are the key areas of involvement for calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• What is an example of generalized osseous demineralization?
• Which is the standard management approach for psoriatic arthritis?
• What is a trummerfeld zone?
• In a pediatric patient, excessive growth hormone before the closure of growth plates results in which condition?
• In diagnosing enteropathic arthritis, radiographs are identical to ankylosing spondylitis; diagnosis relies on what?
• Which of the following is a nutritional disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which of the following neoplastic diseases can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In hyperparathyroidism, bone resorption patterns include subperiosteal, subchondral, subligamentous, and acro-osteolysis. Which of the following is a described pattern?
• Osteoporosis is described in the material as
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which anatomical site is first affected in the spine?
• Which serologic finding is typical in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Shoulder involvement in AS can present as what erosion along the anterolateral aspect of the humeral head?
• Which statement describes a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the spine?
• Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of acromegaly?
• Which radiographic feature is seen in CRPS?
• Which T-score range is considered normal?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which gastrointestinal manifestation can result from scleroderma?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a presenting symptom of SLE in the source material?
• In SLE, central nervous system involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Generalized osteoporosis can be caused by disorders in several categories. Which category includes hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing disease?
• What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which marker is commonly positive in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Pitted nails are seen in psoriatic arthritis and are associated with changes in which joints?
• What is hyperparathyroidism?
• Which sites are considered central for a DEXA scan?
• What is a characteristic clinical feature of early ankylosing spondylitis?
• Are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and hydroxyapatite deposition disease the same entity?
• A T-score of -2.5 with a fragility fracture corresponds to which condition?
• Rugger jersey spine is a radiographic feature of which condition?
• Combination of dagger sign and railroad sign is which sign?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• SLE is more common in which gender?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typical of CRPS?
• Which statement about vertebral fractures in osteoporosis is true?
• What is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease (CPPD) characterized by?
• Osteopenia is defined as
• Which statement best describes the sex predilection of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease. It can also be Whipple disease or intestinal infections. Which of the following reflects this association?
• Gout is more common in which sex?
• What age range is commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Which soft tissue sign is associated with acromegaly on imaging?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with sacroiliac changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which imaging finding is commonly seen in osteomalacia?
• Transient osteoporosis most commonly affects which joint?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is described as a self-limiting clinical diagnosis with limited regional osteoporosis that resolves in how many months?
• Which radiographic finding is the hallmark of rickets involving the growth plates?
• Pelligrini-Steidi sign is associated with hydroxyapatite deposition in which structure?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with enthesitis in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which radiographic descriptor is associated with sacroiliac joint changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• In psoriatic arthritis involving the sacroiliac joints/spine, which pattern is typical?
• Which of the following is NOT typically classified under seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
• Males catchup to females in terms of bone loss by what decades of life?
• Which set lists a central DEXA scanning site?
• SLE is a systemic disease that can affect which organ systems?
• A T-score compares bone density to which reference?
• What type of syndesmophyte formation is seen in psoriatic arthritis of the spine?
• A T-score of -3 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Which of the following is an associated condition with scleroderma?
• What is an example of localized/focal demineralization?
• What type of involvement is seen with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• What MRI finding may accompany shoulder involvement in AS?
• Rugger jersey spine is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which stage is characterized by a red hot swollen joint?
• Which dermatologic manifestation in reactive arthritis can present as penile lesions?
• Ankylosis of the facet joints yields which radiographic sign?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, which statement about the joint spaces is correct?
• Ankylosing spondylitis can lead to fusion of which joints?
• Which corticosteroid-related complication is associated with SLE treatment?
• Which radiographic feature is the scorbutic zone?
• Which clinical feature is typical of ochronosis?
• What is the typical clinical presentation of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which radiographic feature is acro-osteolysis?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature commonly associated with scurvy?
• What is hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Which body region is most commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is also known as?
• Localized/focal osseous demineralization is characterized by which pattern?
• Ochronosis occurs more commonly in which gender?
• What dermatologic feature is commonly seen in psoriatic arthritis?
• Scleroderma is also known as which condition?
• Dermatologic features occur in psoriatic arthritis in approximately what percentage of patients?
• What is rickets?
• Which is a common clinical feature of scleroderma?
• Which statement correctly describes the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) in scurvy?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is more common in females and affects them during what decades of life?
• Which statement about management of ankylosing spondylitis is correct?
• What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
• Regional osseous demineralization is defined as involvement of
• Which category includes multiple myeloma and lytic metastasis as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• What age range is common for gout?
• Trummerfeld zone is a radiographic feature associated with which condition?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which radiographic feature of scurvy can be described as a dense zone of provisional calcification (white line of Frankel)?
• Interspinous ligament calcification corresponds to which radiographic sign?
• What are the four clinical stages of gout?