Diagnostic Imaging I Palmer Practice Test

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• What is a key joint feature in SLE?
• Which age range is commonly affected by SLE?
• What are the causes of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Cushing's disease is best defined as
• Enthesitis in ankylosing spondylitis leads to which sequence of changes?
• Which statement about radiographic features in chronic gout is true?
• Marginal syndesmophyte formation in AS may be accompanied by calcification of which structure?
• SLE is more common in which gender?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with sacroiliac changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which statement best describes the imaging relationship between disuse osteoporosis and CRPS?
• What is scleroderma?
• Patients with what condition commonly have secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Reactive arthritis is believed to be what?
• Which soft tissue sign is associated with acromegaly on imaging?
• What is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease (CPPD) characterized by?
• Osteomalacia is described as
• Which of the following joints is commonly involved in reactive arthritis?
• What is a characteristic clinical feature of early ankylosing spondylitis?
• In a pediatric patient, excessive growth hormone before the closure of growth plates results in which condition?
• Which site is NOT considered peripheral for DEXA scanning?
• Which serologic finding is typical in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Localized/focal osseous demineralization is characterized by which pattern?
• Which stage is characterized by a red hot swollen joint?
• What age range is commonly affected by reactive arthritis?
• Which imaging modalities are typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Which radiographic change is seen in osteitis pubis aside from subchondral sclerosis?
• Which condition describes deposits of urate crystals in soft tissues forming nodules?
• Pitted nails are seen in psoriatic arthritis and are associated with changes in which joints?
• What is the most important area affected in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which joints are commonly affected by SLE?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease in the shoulder most commonly involves which tendon?
• Rugger jersey spine is a radiographic feature of which condition?
• Which soft tissue change is associated with scleroderma?
• Which statement describes the Z-score reference for bone density?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with osteitis pubis?
• Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of acromegaly?
• What is an example of regional osseous demineralization?
• Which sites are considered central for a DEXA scan?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• Which gastrointestinal manifestation can result from scleroderma?
• Radiographic features of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease include which of the following?
• Which radiographic deformity is associated with scleroderma?
• Which T-score range is considered normal?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in chronic gout?
• Which body region is most commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Radiographic features become evident after immobilization in how many days?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• How does marginal syndesmophyte formation present radiographically?
• Ochronosis occurs more commonly in which gender?
• What imaging modality provides a definitive diagnosis for CRPS?
• Ochronosis is characterized by deficiency of which enzyme?
• In psoriatic arthritis involving the sacroiliac joints/spine, which pattern is typical?
• A T-score of -4 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Which joint shows severe changes with radial subluxation in scleroderma?
• Which of the following is an iatrogenic cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is best described as?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic at sites of enthesis in psoriatic arthritis?
• What percentage of patients with ulcerative colitis present with enteropathic arthritis?
• CPPD crystal deposition is seen in which tissues?
• Salt and pepper skull is typically seen in which condition?
• Which statement correctly describes the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) in scurvy?
• What dermatologic feature is commonly seen in psoriatic arthritis?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which joints are primarily involved in fusion as the disease progresses?
• What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is hyperparathyroidism?
• Gout is more common in which sex?
• What are the four clinical stages of gout?
• Which osseous change is characteristic of scleroderma?
• In ochronosis, which pattern describes joint involvement in non-axial joints?
• What is the most common type of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic feature is the scorbutic zone?
• Which radiographic finding is represented by a dense zone of provisional calcification around the metaphysis and is known as the white line of Frankel?
• Osteoporosis is described in the material as
• What is a radiographic feature of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Which imaging feature differentiates disuse osteoporosis from early CRPS?
• Trummerfeld zone is a radiographic feature associated with which condition?
• SLE is a systemic disease that can affect which organ systems?
• Which joint is commonly involved in ochronosis with chondrocalcinosis?
• SLAC wrist is associated with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and involves which change?
• Interspinous ligament calcification corresponds to which radiographic sign?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which anatomical site is first affected in the spine?
• Pelligrini-Steidi sign is associated with hydroxyapatite deposition in which structure?
• Which radiographic feature is acro-osteolysis?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, which statement about the joint spaces is correct?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature of disuse osteoporosis?
• Which is a common clinical feature of scleroderma?
• Which radiographic jaw change is associated with acromegaly?
• Rickets is distinguished from osteomalacia primarily by involvement of which anatomical structures?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in SLE?
• Are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and hydroxyapatite deposition disease the same entity?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, back stiffness can progress to complete loss of range of motion due to fusion of the spine, a condition called what?
• Generalized osseous demineralization involves
• Which radiographic feature is associated with dactylitis (sausage digits) in psoriatic arthritis?
• Common fracture sites associated with osteoporosis include which of the following?
• Which of the following is a nutritional disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• A T-score of -2 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a presenting symptom of SLE in the source material?
• Brown tumors are associated with which condition?
• Which corticosteroid-related complication is associated with SLE treatment?
• Fractures due to post-menopausal osteoporosis can be found where?
• What is a scorbutic zone?
• Which statement best describes the typical joint involvement in SLE?
• Which of the following neoplastic diseases can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typically seen in osteomalacia?
• Regional osseous demineralization is best described as involvement of
• Which laboratory finding is most commonly associated with gout?
• What type of syndesmophyte formation is seen in psoriatic arthritis of the spine?
• In hydroxyapatite deposition disease of the shoulder, calcifications are best seen in which rotator cuff tendon on an external rotation view?
• Which statement describes a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the spine?
• In CRPS radiographs, which feature is typical?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is usually symptomatic only if?
• Which statement about lab diagnostics in post-menopausal osteoporosis is true?
• What is primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which imaging modality is NOT typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Scleroderma is also known as which condition?
• What age range is common for gout?
• Which of the following is NOT a radiographic feature of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What does the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) represent?
• Which lab finding is typical of reactive arthritis?
• What is the most common site of involvement for gout?
• What type of involvement is seen with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which of the following are listed as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• What is the clinical presentation of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• In early spinal involvement of ankylosing spondylitis, which lesion is typically seen along the anterior corners of the vertebral bodies, often leading to squared vertebrae?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic of sacroiliac joints in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which marker is commonly positive in ankylosing spondylitis?
• A T-score of -3 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Ankylosing spondylitis can lead to fusion of which joints?
• -2.0 T-score corresponds to which category?
• Which condition is a metabolic arthritic disorder?
• Which radiographic descriptor is associated with sacroiliac joint changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which stage is associated with chronic tophaceous gout?
• What is generalized osseous demineralization?
• Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are defined as what characteristics?
• What type of arthropathy is SLE associated with?
• Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland?
• Which radiographic finding is commonly associated with Cushing's disease?
• What is an example of generalized osseous demineralization?
• What is the initial pathologic process in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which statement best describes generalized osteoporosis in the context of systemic bone health?
• What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is a trummerfeld zone?
• What is scurvy commonly known as?
• Which of the following is a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Ankylosis of the facet joints yields which radiographic sign?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease is also known as?
• Peak radiographic changes occur at what time after immobilization?
• Which pattern of joint involvement is most characteristic of psoriatic arthritis?
• What is an example of localized/focal demineralization?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in both rickets and scurvy?
• Regional osseous demineralization is defined as involvement of
• Which of the following is a metabolic/endocrine disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In diagnosing enteropathic arthritis, radiographs are identical to ankylosing spondylitis; diagnosis relies on what?
• Reactive arthritis is also known as?
• Disuse osteoporosis is defined as bone loss due to immobilization from which conditions?
• Which laboratory test is commonly used for screening in SLE?
• Which anticonvulsant is listed as a risk factor for rickets?
• Which imaging view best demonstrates calcifications in the supraspinatus tendon?
• Osteopenia is defined as
• In whom is scurvy commonly seen?
• What is the recommended management action for ankylosing spondylitis?
• Subperiosteal hemorrhage and hemarthrosis are radiographic features of which disease?
• What are the different types of osseous demineralization?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an association of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which radiographic finding may be an early sign of acromegaly?
• Which statement best describes how a DEXA scan quantifies bone mass?
• What age range is commonly affected by transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is also known as what?
• Growth hormone (GH) is produced by which part of the pituitary gland?
• Which of the following is NOT typically classified under seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
• Which of the following is NOT a key involvement area for reactive arthritis?
• Which clinical feature is typical of ochronosis?
• Shiny corner sign refers to which radiographic finding?
• What are the key areas of involvement for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Ochronosis inheritance pattern?
• Rugger jersey spine is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which radiographic feature of scurvy can be described as a dense zone of provisional calcification (white line of Frankel)?
• Which phenomenon commonly accompanies scleroderma affecting peripheral circulation?
• What imaging modality is preferred for detecting density changes in post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Combination of dagger sign and railroad sign is which sign?
• Shoulder involvement in AS can present as what erosion along the anterolateral aspect of the humeral head?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with enthesitis in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which imaging finding is commonly seen in osteomalacia?
• What is the etiology for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Is ankylosing spondylitis more common in males or females?
• Longus colli deposition disease occurs at which site?
• In hyperparathyroidism, bone resorption patterns include subperiosteal, subchondral, subligamentous, and acro-osteolysis. Which of the following is a described pattern?
• What labs are typically used to evaluate scleroderma?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature associated with acromegaly?
• Which of the following is an associated condition with scleroderma?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• A T-score of -2.6 is classified as which condition?
• Which statement best describes the sex predilection of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Ochronosis is also known as which condition?
• A DEXA report shows which scores?
• Which finding is a general radiographic feature in the appendicular skeleton for reactive arthritis?
• Which combination represents the classic triad of reactive arthritis?
• Which radiographic feature is described as 'mouse ear' appearance at the interphalangeal joints?
• Which region is typically affected second in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which is the standard management approach for psoriatic arthritis?
• What are the key areas of involvement for calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which pelvis finding is AS due to ossification of ligamentous insertional sites, presenting as whiskering of the ischial tuberosities?
• What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) best described as?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is also known as?
• Psoriatic arthritis is described as which of the following?
• Gout is also known as which term?
• What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which set lists a central DEXA scanning site?
• Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for scurvy?
• Which connective tissue disorder is associated with scleroderma?
• In the altered trabecular pattern of post-menopausal osteoporosis, which statement is true?
• Which of the following is a vascular disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Complex regional pain syndrome is also known as which of the following?
• What is ankylosing spondylitis?
• Enteropathic arthritis is best described as which of the following?
• In SLE, gastrointestinal involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is more common in females and affects them during what decades of life?
• Although transient osteoporosis of the hip classically is more common in males, it also affects who commonly?
• Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
• Osteomalacia is clinically asymptomatic unless?
• Males catchup to females in terms of bone loss by what decades of life?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• The most common etiology of regional osteoporosis is?
• Transient osteoporosis most commonly affects which joint?
• Which radiographic feature is seen in CRPS?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with osteitis pubis?
• What is acromegaly?
• Which statement about vertebral fractures in osteoporosis is true?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is more common in which sex?
• What age is commonly affected by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which sites are considered peripheral for a DEXA scan?
• Which statement describes radiographs in detecting density changes in osteoporosis?
• Which category includes multiple myeloma and lytic metastasis as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• A T-score compares bone density to which reference?
• Which of the following is a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the appendicular skeleton?
• What is the radiographic feature of osteitis condensans ilii?
• Which dermatologic manifestation in reactive arthritis can present as penile lesions?
• What MRI finding may accompany shoulder involvement in AS?
• Which radiographic finding is the hallmark of rickets involving the growth plates?
• In acromegaly, degenerative joint disease tends to develop when?
• What is the typical clinical presentation of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which is an etiology of osteomalacia?
• Which congenital disorder is listed as a cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• What is osteitis pubis?
• Pubic symphyseal enthesitis/erosions is a radiographic feature of AS in which region?
• What is the most common location of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What age range is commonly affected by psoriatic arthritis?
• A T-score of -2.5 with a fragility fracture corresponds to which condition?
• What is rickets?
• Which of the following is not listed as a type of osseous demineralization?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature commonly associated with scurvy?
• Generalized osteoporosis can be caused by disorders in several categories. Which category includes hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing disease?
• Pelkin spurs are metaphyseal spurs that result in what appearance?
• Which of the following is a characteristic facial feature of Cushing's disease?
• In psoriatic arthritis, the spine can be involved, including which region?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is more common in which group?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, is it more common in males or females?
• Which metabolite accumulates in ochronosis due to enzyme deficiency?
• Pseudoarthrosis at the site of a pathologic fracture (carrot-stick) in ankylosing spondylitis is known as?
• Which region is typically affected first in ankylosing spondylitis?
• In SLE, central nervous system involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typical of CRPS?
• What age range is commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Scleroderma is more common in which sex?
• Dermatologic features occur in psoriatic arthritis in approximately what percentage of patients?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is described as a self-limiting clinical diagnosis with limited regional osteoporosis that resolves in how many months?
• Which statement about management of ankylosing spondylitis is correct?
• What imaging view is recommended to assess cervical involvement in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Reactive arthritis is more common in which gender?
• Radiographic features of rickets are most prevalent at which site?
• In ankylosing spondylitis affecting the hips, which progression may occur?
• Which statement about psoriatic arthritis is NOT true?
• In ochronosis, which spinal change may be seen?
• Ward's triangle in osteoporosis is described as:
• Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease. It can also be Whipple disease or intestinal infections. Which of the following reflects this association?
• What might secondary hyperparathyroidism result in?
• What is gout?