Diagnostic Imaging I Palmer Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In SLE, central nervous system involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Radiographic features of rickets are most prevalent at which site?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• What age range is commonly affected by reactive arthritis?
• What does the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) represent?
• In early spinal involvement of ankylosing spondylitis, which lesion is typically seen along the anterior corners of the vertebral bodies, often leading to squared vertebrae?
• Are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and hydroxyapatite deposition disease the same entity?
• Which joints are commonly affected by SLE?
• In psoriatic arthritis involving the sacroiliac joints/spine, which pattern is typical?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• Which serologic finding is typical in ankylosing spondylitis?
• In ochronosis, which pattern describes joint involvement in non-axial joints?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is also known as?
• Which radiographic jaw change is associated with acromegaly?
• Which of the following is NOT a key involvement area for reactive arthritis?
• Rickets is distinguished from osteomalacia primarily by involvement of which anatomical structures?
• Which radiographic finding is commonly associated with Cushing's disease?
• A T-score of -3 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• What is hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Osteopenia is defined as
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is more common in females and affects them during what decades of life?
• Which laboratory test is commonly used for screening in SLE?
• Fractures due to post-menopausal osteoporosis can be found where?
• Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease. It can also be Whipple disease or intestinal infections. Which of the following reflects this association?
• Scleroderma is more common in which sex?
• Which of the following joints is commonly involved in reactive arthritis?
• Which condition describes deposits of urate crystals in soft tissues forming nodules?
• Radiographic features of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease include which of the following?
• Which of the following is an associated condition with scleroderma?
• Subperiosteal hemorrhage and hemarthrosis are radiographic features of which disease?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which joints are primarily involved in fusion as the disease progresses?
• What is the most common location of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What is a radiographic feature of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Disuse osteoporosis is defined as bone loss due to immobilization from which conditions?
• Pitted nails are seen in psoriatic arthritis and are associated with changes in which joints?
• Which of the following neoplastic diseases can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In psoriatic arthritis, the spine can be involved, including which region?
• Gout is also known as which term?
• Which radiographic feature is acro-osteolysis?
• Which connective tissue disorder is associated with scleroderma?
• Which of the following are listed as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• Ochronosis is also known as which condition?
• Which of the following is a characteristic facial feature of Cushing's disease?
• What is the recommended management action for ankylosing spondylitis?
• A T-score of -2.5 with a fragility fracture corresponds to which condition?
• Peak radiographic changes occur at what time after immobilization?
• Which statement best describes generalized osteoporosis in the context of systemic bone health?
• What is the most important area affected in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with sacroiliac changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• What age range is commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Which region is typically affected first in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Growth hormone (GH) is produced by which part of the pituitary gland?
• A T-score compares bone density to which reference?
• Enteropathic arthritis is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the sex predilection of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland?
• Which statement about lab diagnostics in post-menopausal osteoporosis is true?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which sites are considered central for a DEXA scan?
• Which of the following is a metabolic/endocrine disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Longus colli deposition disease occurs at which site?
• In a pediatric patient, excessive growth hormone before the closure of growth plates results in which condition?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with enthesitis in psoriatic arthritis?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease is also known as?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typical of CRPS?
• -2.0 T-score corresponds to which category?
• What is an example of localized/focal demineralization?
• Which of the following is a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the appendicular skeleton?
• Which statement about management of ankylosing spondylitis is correct?
• What is generalized osseous demineralization?
• Males catchup to females in terms of bone loss by what decades of life?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with dactylitis (sausage digits) in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for scurvy?
• Rugger jersey spine is most commonly associated with which condition?
• What is a characteristic clinical feature of early ankylosing spondylitis?
• What age range is commonly affected by psoriatic arthritis?
• Which anticonvulsant is listed as a risk factor for rickets?
• Which laboratory finding is most commonly associated with gout?
• Which of the following is a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Generalized osteoporosis can be caused by disorders in several categories. Which category includes hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing disease?
• What is osteitis pubis?
• Which pattern of joint involvement is most characteristic of psoriatic arthritis?
• Shoulder involvement in AS can present as what erosion along the anterolateral aspect of the humeral head?
• Cushing's disease is best defined as
• Psoriatic arthritis is described as which of the following?
• Ochronosis is characterized by deficiency of which enzyme?
• Which radiographic feature is described as 'mouse ear' appearance at the interphalangeal joints?
• What is the most common type of generalized osteoporosis?
• What percentage of patients with ulcerative colitis present with enteropathic arthritis?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic at sites of enthesis in psoriatic arthritis?
• What MRI finding may accompany shoulder involvement in AS?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, back stiffness can progress to complete loss of range of motion due to fusion of the spine, a condition called what?
• Reactive arthritis is more common in which gender?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• What is hyperparathyroidism?
• Osteomalacia is clinically asymptomatic unless?
• A T-score of -4 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• What is the most common site of involvement for gout?
• In the altered trabecular pattern of post-menopausal osteoporosis, which statement is true?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with osteitis pubis?
• Which statement describes radiographs in detecting density changes in osteoporosis?
• Regional osseous demineralization is best described as involvement of
• The most common etiology of regional osteoporosis is?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is more common in which sex?
• Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is described as a self-limiting clinical diagnosis with limited regional osteoporosis that resolves in how many months?
• Salt and pepper skull is typically seen in which condition?
• What is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease (CPPD) characterized by?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, is it more common in males or females?
• What age range is commonly affected by transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
• What are the four clinical stages of gout?
• How does marginal syndesmophyte formation present radiographically?
• Which of the following is not listed as a type of osseous demineralization?
• Which soft tissue change is associated with scleroderma?
• Which congenital disorder is listed as a cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• SLE is a systemic disease that can affect which organ systems?
• Which stage is associated with chronic tophaceous gout?
• Ankylosis of the facet joints yields which radiographic sign?
• Which condition is a metabolic arthritic disorder?
• Which category includes multiple myeloma and lytic metastasis as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• Ochronosis inheritance pattern?
• Which imaging finding is commonly seen in osteomalacia?
• Although transient osteoporosis of the hip classically is more common in males, it also affects who commonly?
• What is the etiology for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature of disuse osteoporosis?
• In ochronosis, which spinal change may be seen?
• Generalized osseous demineralization involves
• Which dermatologic manifestation in reactive arthritis can present as penile lesions?
• Shiny corner sign refers to which radiographic finding?
• What is an example of generalized osseous demineralization?
• Transient osteoporosis most commonly affects which joint?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which anatomical site is first affected in the spine?
• Which radiographic change is seen in osteitis pubis aside from subchondral sclerosis?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in both rickets and scurvy?
• Which marker is commonly positive in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which radiographic finding is represented by a dense zone of provisional calcification around the metaphysis and is known as the white line of Frankel?
• What imaging modality is preferred for detecting density changes in post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Ochronosis occurs more commonly in which gender?
• Which statement describes a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the spine?
• Which imaging modalities are typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Which radiographic finding is the hallmark of rickets involving the growth plates?
• What is an example of regional osseous demineralization?
• Which soft tissue sign is associated with acromegaly on imaging?
• Osteoporosis is described in the material as
• What is a trummerfeld zone?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with osteitis pubis?
• Which T-score range is considered normal?
• In whom is scurvy commonly seen?
• Which radiographic feature is seen in CRPS?
• A DEXA report shows which scores?
• Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are defined as what characteristics?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in chronic gout?
• Pseudoarthrosis at the site of a pathologic fracture (carrot-stick) in ankylosing spondylitis is known as?
• Osteomalacia is described as
• Ankylosing spondylitis can lead to fusion of which joints?
• What labs are typically used to evaluate scleroderma?
• Which region is typically affected second in ankylosing spondylitis?
• What are the different types of osseous demineralization?
• SLAC wrist is associated with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and involves which change?
• Which body region is most commonly affected by scleroderma?
• What is gout?
• What age range is common for gout?
• Which pelvis finding is AS due to ossification of ligamentous insertional sites, presenting as whiskering of the ischial tuberosities?
• Dermatologic features occur in psoriatic arthritis in approximately what percentage of patients?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is best described as?
• Trummerfeld zone is a radiographic feature associated with which condition?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is usually symptomatic only if?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic of sacroiliac joints in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which imaging modality is NOT typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Reactive arthritis is believed to be what?
• Regional osseous demineralization is defined as involvement of
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a presenting symptom of SLE in the source material?
• Which clinical feature is typical of ochronosis?
• Which statement best describes the typical joint involvement in SLE?
• Reactive arthritis is also known as?
• What is a scorbutic zone?
• Rugger jersey spine is a radiographic feature of which condition?
• Which is the standard management approach for psoriatic arthritis?
• Which of the following is NOT a radiographic feature of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for ankylosing spondylitis?
• Radiographic features become evident after immobilization in how many days?
• Which imaging view best demonstrates calcifications in the supraspinatus tendon?
• Pelligrini-Steidi sign is associated with hydroxyapatite deposition in which structure?
• A T-score of -2 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Pelkin spurs are metaphyseal spurs that result in what appearance?
• Which statement best describes the imaging relationship between disuse osteoporosis and CRPS?
• Which of the following is NOT typically classified under seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
• In hyperparathyroidism, bone resorption patterns include subperiosteal, subchondral, subligamentous, and acro-osteolysis. Which of the following is a described pattern?
• What imaging view is recommended to assess cervical involvement in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which is an etiology of osteomalacia?
• What is ankylosing spondylitis?
• Pubic symphyseal enthesitis/erosions is a radiographic feature of AS in which region?
• Localized/focal osseous demineralization is characterized by which pattern?
• In acromegaly, degenerative joint disease tends to develop when?
• Which sites are considered peripheral for a DEXA scan?
• What are the causes of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which is a common clinical feature of scleroderma?
• Patients with what condition commonly have secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which radiographic descriptor is associated with sacroiliac joint changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Marginal syndesmophyte formation in AS may be accompanied by calcification of which structure?
• Which statement best describes how a DEXA scan quantifies bone mass?
• What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• What are the key areas of involvement for calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature associated with acromegaly?
• CPPD crystal deposition is seen in which tissues?
• Common fracture sites associated with osteoporosis include which of the following?
• Which of the following is a vascular disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• What type of involvement is seen with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• What is the radiographic feature of osteitis condensans ilii?
• A T-score of -2.6 is classified as which condition?
• Which radiographic feature is the scorbutic zone?
• SLE is more common in which gender?
• Which gastrointestinal manifestation can result from scleroderma?
• Which radiographic finding may be an early sign of acromegaly?
• Which age range is commonly affected by SLE?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• What dermatologic feature is commonly seen in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which statement about psoriatic arthritis is NOT true?
• Complex regional pain syndrome is also known as which of the following?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typically seen in osteomalacia?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an association of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Enthesitis in ankylosing spondylitis leads to which sequence of changes?
• Which set lists a central DEXA scanning site?
• Gout is more common in which sex?
• What age is commonly affected by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which statement correctly describes the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) in scurvy?
• Scleroderma is also known as which condition?
• Which statement about vertebral fractures in osteoporosis is true?
• What is the initial pathologic process in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is more common in which group?
• Which metabolite accumulates in ochronosis due to enzyme deficiency?
• Which statement describes the Z-score reference for bone density?
• Combination of dagger sign and railroad sign is which sign?
• What is scurvy commonly known as?
• What is acromegaly?
• What might secondary hyperparathyroidism result in?
• Which osseous change is characteristic of scleroderma?
• Which joint shows severe changes with radial subluxation in scleroderma?
• Brown tumors are associated with which condition?
• Which of the following is an iatrogenic cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Interspinous ligament calcification corresponds to which radiographic sign?
• Which of the following is a nutritional disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which phenomenon commonly accompanies scleroderma affecting peripheral circulation?
• In SLE, gastrointestinal involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) best described as?
• What is primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which statement about radiographic features in chronic gout is true?
• In ankylosing spondylitis affecting the hips, which progression may occur?
• Which imaging feature differentiates disuse osteoporosis from early CRPS?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in SLE?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• In CRPS radiographs, which feature is typical?
• Which radiographic deformity is associated with scleroderma?
• Which finding is a general radiographic feature in the appendicular skeleton for reactive arthritis?
• In hydroxyapatite deposition disease of the shoulder, calcifications are best seen in which rotator cuff tendon on an external rotation view?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature commonly associated with scurvy?
• Which radiographic feature of scurvy can be described as a dense zone of provisional calcification (white line of Frankel)?
• What type of arthropathy is SLE associated with?
• What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
• What imaging modality provides a definitive diagnosis for CRPS?
• Which joint is commonly involved in ochronosis with chondrocalcinosis?
• Ward's triangle in osteoporosis is described as:
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, which statement about the joint spaces is correct?
• What is the clinical presentation of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• What is rickets?
• Which corticosteroid-related complication is associated with SLE treatment?
• What type of syndesmophyte formation is seen in psoriatic arthritis of the spine?
• Which lab finding is typical of reactive arthritis?
• Which combination represents the classic triad of reactive arthritis?
• In diagnosing enteropathic arthritis, radiographs are identical to ankylosing spondylitis; diagnosis relies on what?
• What is the typical clinical presentation of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What is a key joint feature in SLE?
• What is scleroderma?
• Is ankylosing spondylitis more common in males or females?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is also known as what?
• What are the key areas of involvement for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease in the shoulder most commonly involves which tendon?
• Which site is NOT considered peripheral for DEXA scanning?
• Which stage is characterized by a red hot swollen joint?
• Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of acromegaly?