Diagnostic Imaging I Palmer Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which sites are considered peripheral for a DEXA scan?
• What type of involvement is seen with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with osteitis pubis?
• Which of the following neoplastic diseases can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) best described as?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is described as a self-limiting clinical diagnosis with limited regional osteoporosis that resolves in how many months?
• Ward's triangle in osteoporosis is described as:
• Combination of dagger sign and railroad sign is which sign?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is more common in which group?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in both rickets and scurvy?
• What does the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) represent?
• What imaging view is recommended to assess cervical involvement in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which statement best describes the typical joint involvement in SLE?
• Which of the following is a characteristic facial feature of Cushing's disease?
• What is osteitis pubis?
• Which of the following is NOT typically classified under seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
• Which statement describes radiographs in detecting density changes in osteoporosis?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which anatomical site is first affected in the spine?
• Which congenital disorder is listed as a cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• Which gastrointestinal manifestation can result from scleroderma?
• A T-score of -2.5 with a fragility fracture corresponds to which condition?
• A T-score of -2.6 is classified as which condition?
• Which radiographic jaw change is associated with acromegaly?
• Which clinical feature is typical of ochronosis?
• What is the most common location of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• What age range is commonly affected by transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Rugger jersey spine is a radiographic feature of which condition?
• SLE is more common in which gender?
• Which condition describes deposits of urate crystals in soft tissues forming nodules?
• What age range is commonly affected by reactive arthritis?
• Which is the standard management approach for psoriatic arthritis?
• Complex regional pain syndrome is also known as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• A T-score of -2 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• In psoriatic arthritis involving the sacroiliac joints/spine, which pattern is typical?
• Regional osseous demineralization is best described as involvement of
• What are the different types of osseous demineralization?
• Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland?
• What is the most common site of involvement for gout?
• What are the key areas of involvement for calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Reactive arthritis is also known as?
• What are the causes of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• What is scleroderma?
• Although transient osteoporosis of the hip classically is more common in males, it also affects who commonly?
• Which anticonvulsant is listed as a risk factor for rickets?
• What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which of the following is a nutritional disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Is ankylosing spondylitis more common in males or females?
• Which joint shows severe changes with radial subluxation in scleroderma?
• Which statement best describes the sex predilection of ankylosing spondylitis?
• A T-score compares bone density to which reference?
• Which joints are commonly affected by SLE?
• Longus colli deposition disease occurs at which site?
• What imaging modality provides a definitive diagnosis for CRPS?
• Which body region is most commonly affected by scleroderma?
• Transient osteoporosis most commonly affects which joint?
• Rugger jersey spine is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature of disuse osteoporosis?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic at sites of enthesis in psoriatic arthritis?
• In SLE, central nervous system involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• What is an example of localized/focal demineralization?
• Which metabolite accumulates in ochronosis due to enzyme deficiency?
• Which of the following is an associated condition with scleroderma?
• What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is the most common type of generalized osteoporosis?
• Ankylosis of the facet joints yields which radiographic sign?
• Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for scurvy?
• In CRPS radiographs, which feature is typical?
• What might secondary hyperparathyroidism result in?
• Which radiographic feature is most characteristic of sacroiliac joints in ankylosing spondylitis?
• In SLE, gastrointestinal involvement accounts for approximately what percentage?
• Growth hormone (GH) is produced by which part of the pituitary gland?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is usually symptomatic only if?
• Ochronosis occurs more commonly in which gender?
• Which of the following is a radiographic feature associated with acromegaly?
• Which radiographic feature of scurvy can be described as a dense zone of provisional calcification (white line of Frankel)?
• Which radiographic sign is associated with sacroiliac changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Ochronosis is also known as which condition?
• In ankylosing spondylitis affecting the hips, which progression may occur?
• Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
• Reactive arthritis is more common in which gender?
• Which radiographic feature is seen in CRPS?
• What dermatologic feature is commonly seen in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which serologic finding is typical in ankylosing spondylitis?
• What is the recommended management action for ankylosing spondylitis?
• In psoriatic arthritis, the spine can be involved, including which region?
• Which phenomenon commonly accompanies scleroderma affecting peripheral circulation?
• Which combination represents the classic triad of reactive arthritis?
• Which of the following is NOT a radiographic feature of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Radiographic features of rickets are most prevalent at which site?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is also known as what?
• Which of the following is a metabolic/endocrine disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• What is gout?
• What is a scorbutic zone?
• Gout is more common in which sex?
• What is rickets?
• Cushing's disease is best defined as
• Which category includes multiple myeloma and lytic metastasis as causes of generalized osteoporosis?
• What type of syndesmophyte formation is seen in psoriatic arthritis of the spine?
• What is an example of generalized osseous demineralization?
• What is ankylosing spondylitis?
• What age range is commonly affected by scleroderma?
• What is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease (CPPD) characterized by?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typically seen in osteomalacia?
• Which of the following is NOT a key involvement area for reactive arthritis?
• CPPD crystal deposition is seen in which tissues?
• Which pelvis finding is AS due to ossification of ligamentous insertional sites, presenting as whiskering of the ischial tuberosities?
• In whom is scurvy commonly seen?
• Osteoporosis is described in the material as
• Which region is typically affected first in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which radiographic feature is described as 'mouse ear' appearance at the interphalangeal joints?
• Which connective tissue disorder is associated with scleroderma?
• SLE is a systemic disease that can affect which organ systems?
• Which imaging view best demonstrates calcifications in the supraspinatus tendon?
• Which radiographic finding is represented by a dense zone of provisional calcification around the metaphysis and is known as the white line of Frankel?
• What percentage of patients with ulcerative colitis present with enteropathic arthritis?
• What is the radiographic feature of osteitis condensans ilii?
• Osteomalacia is clinically asymptomatic unless?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, which joints are primarily involved in fusion as the disease progresses?
• What age range is common for gout?
• Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn's disease. It can also be Whipple disease or intestinal infections. Which of the following reflects this association?
• What is the most important area affected in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Scleroderma is more common in which sex?
• Radiographic features of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease include which of the following?
• Reactive arthritis is believed to be what?
• Pseudoarthrosis at the site of a pathologic fracture (carrot-stick) in ankylosing spondylitis is known as?
• Rickets is distinguished from osteomalacia primarily by involvement of which anatomical structures?
• Which radiographic change is seen in osteitis pubis aside from subchondral sclerosis?
• Which set lists a central DEXA scanning site?
• In hyperparathyroidism, bone resorption patterns include subperiosteal, subchondral, subligamentous, and acro-osteolysis. Which of the following is a described pattern?
• Which sites are considered central for a DEXA scan?
• Which pattern of joint involvement is most characteristic of psoriatic arthritis?
• Psoriatic arthritis is described as which of the following?
• What MRI finding may accompany shoulder involvement in AS?
• Which radiographic finding may be an early sign of acromegaly?
• Which statement describes a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the spine?
• In ochronosis, which spinal change may be seen?
• Which marker is commonly positive in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Shoulder involvement in AS can present as what erosion along the anterolateral aspect of the humeral head?
• Which stage is associated with chronic tophaceous gout?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease is also known as?
• Common fracture sites associated with osteoporosis include which of the following?
• What is primary hyperparathyroidism?
• Ankylosing spondylitis can lead to fusion of which joints?
• What is a trummerfeld zone?
• Which age range is commonly affected by SLE?
• In the altered trabecular pattern of post-menopausal osteoporosis, which statement is true?
• Which radiographic finding is commonly associated with Cushing's disease?
• Pelkin spurs are metaphyseal spurs that result in what appearance?
• Which finding is a general radiographic feature in the appendicular skeleton for reactive arthritis?
• Which laboratory finding is most commonly associated with gout?
• Post-menopausal osteoporosis is more common in females and affects them during what decades of life?
• What is the initial pathologic process in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Radiographic features become evident after immobilization in how many days?
• Osteopenia is defined as
• What is a key joint feature in SLE?
• Which radiographic deformity is associated with scleroderma?
• Which statement best describes how a DEXA scan quantifies bone mass?
• Which site is NOT considered peripheral for DEXA scanning?
• Pubic symphyseal enthesitis/erosions is a radiographic feature of AS in which region?
• Which radiographic feature is NOT typical of CRPS?
• Ochronosis is characterized by deficiency of which enzyme?
• What is generalized osseous demineralization?
• Which statement about management of ankylosing spondylitis is correct?
• What is acromegaly?
• In early spinal involvement of ankylosing spondylitis, which lesion is typically seen along the anterior corners of the vertebral bodies, often leading to squared vertebrae?
• Enteropathic arthritis is best described as which of the following?
• Which imaging modalities are typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• Which laboratory test is commonly used for screening in SLE?
• The most common etiology of regional osteoporosis is?
• Osteomalacia is described as
• In a pediatric patient, excessive growth hormone before the closure of growth plates results in which condition?
• Males catchup to females in terms of bone loss by what decades of life?
• Which imaging feature differentiates disuse osteoporosis from early CRPS?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an association of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease is more common in which sex?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which radiographic finding can be seen in SLE?
• What labs are typically used to evaluate scleroderma?
• A DEXA report shows which scores?
• Which soft tissue sign is associated with acromegaly on imaging?
• Localized/focal osseous demineralization is characterized by which pattern?
• Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of acromegaly?
• Enthesitis in ankylosing spondylitis leads to which sequence of changes?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature commonly associated with scurvy?
• Transient osteoporosis of the hip is also known as?
• Ochronosis inheritance pattern?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which soft tissue change is associated with scleroderma?
• What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• What is an example of regional osseous demineralization?
• Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
• Which statement about vertebral fractures in osteoporosis is true?
• In hydroxyapatite deposition disease of the shoulder, calcifications are best seen in which rotator cuff tendon on an external rotation view?
• Generalized osteoporosis can be caused by disorders in several categories. Which category includes hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing disease?
• Which joint is commonly involved in ochronosis with chondrocalcinosis?
• How does marginal syndesmophyte formation present radiographically?
• What imaging modality is preferred for detecting density changes in post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• In diagnosing enteropathic arthritis, radiographs are identical to ankylosing spondylitis; diagnosis relies on what?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for rickets?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with enthesitis in psoriatic arthritis?
• Fractures due to post-menopausal osteoporosis can be found where?
• Hydroxyapatite deposition disease in the shoulder most commonly involves which tendon?
• Which statement about radiographic features in chronic gout is true?
• Disuse osteoporosis is defined as bone loss due to immobilization from which conditions?
• A T-score of -3 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Which of the following joints is commonly involved in reactive arthritis?
• Salt and pepper skull is typically seen in which condition?
• Which is a common clinical feature of scleroderma?
• What age range is commonly affected by psoriatic arthritis?
• Which corticosteroid-related complication is associated with SLE treatment?
• What is the clinical presentation of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Which radiographic feature is acro-osteolysis?
• Brown tumors are associated with which condition?
• Regional osseous demineralization is defined as involvement of
• Which radiographic finding is the hallmark of rickets involving the growth plates?
• Shiny corner sign refers to which radiographic finding?
• What is scurvy commonly known as?
• Are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and hydroxyapatite deposition disease the same entity?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a presenting symptom of SLE in the source material?
• In ankylosing spondylitis, back stiffness can progress to complete loss of range of motion due to fusion of the spine, a condition called what?
• Which is an etiology of osteomalacia?
• What age is commonly affected by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?
• Which dermatologic manifestation in reactive arthritis can present as penile lesions?
• Pitted nails are seen in psoriatic arthritis and are associated with changes in which joints?
• Which radiographic feature is associated with dactylitis (sausage digits) in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which of the following is an iatrogenic cause of generalized osteoporosis?
• What are the four clinical stages of gout?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which of the following is a congenital disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• Which statement about lab diagnostics in post-menopausal osteoporosis is true?
• Which imaging modality is NOT typically used to evaluate the pituitary gland?
• What is hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• Which stage is characterized by a red hot swollen joint?
• Interspinous ligament calcification corresponds to which radiographic sign?
• Trummerfeld zone is a radiographic feature associated with which condition?
• Dermatologic features occur in psoriatic arthritis in approximately what percentage of patients?
• SLAC wrist is associated with calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease and involves which change?
• Which region is typically affected second in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which condition is a metabolic arthritic disorder?
• Marginal syndesmophyte formation in AS may be accompanied by calcification of which structure?
• What are the key areas of involvement for hydroxyapatite depositional disease?
• What is hyperparathyroidism?
• Generalized osseous demineralization involves
• A T-score of -4 corresponds to how many times more likely to fracture relative to normal?
• Gout is also known as which term?
• Which of the following is a general radiographic feature of reactive arthritis in the appendicular skeleton?
• Pelligrini-Steidi sign is associated with hydroxyapatite deposition in which structure?
• What is a characteristic clinical feature of early ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is a vascular disorder that can cause generalized osteoporosis?
• In acromegaly, degenerative joint disease tends to develop when?
• Which radiographic descriptor is associated with sacroiliac joint changes in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Which of the following is not listed as a type of osseous demineralization?
• Which radiographic feature is the scorbutic zone?
• What is the typical clinical presentation of post-menopausal osteoporosis?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with osteitis pubis?
• -2.0 T-score corresponds to which category?
• Which lab finding is typical of reactive arthritis?
• Scleroderma is also known as which condition?
• Which statement best describes generalized osteoporosis in the context of systemic bone health?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, which statement about the joint spaces is correct?
• Patients with what condition commonly have secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• In transient osteoporosis of the hip, is it more common in males or females?
• What type of arthropathy is SLE associated with?
• Which statement about psoriatic arthritis is NOT true?
• Which osseous change is characteristic of scleroderma?
• Subperiosteal hemorrhage and hemarthrosis are radiographic features of which disease?
• Which of the following is a key area of involvement in psoriatic arthritis?
• Which statement describes the Z-score reference for bone density?
• In ochronosis, which pattern describes joint involvement in non-axial joints?
• Osteitis condensans ilii is best described as?
• Which T-score range is considered normal?
• Which radiographic feature is commonly seen in chronic gout?
• What is a radiographic feature of transient osteoporosis of the hip?
• Peak radiographic changes occur at what time after immobilization?
• Which statement correctly describes the ring epiphysis (Wimberger) in scurvy?
• Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are defined as what characteristics?
• Which of the following are listed as causes of generalized osteoporosis?